[b-hebrew] Psalm 30 title: house of David vs. the house (temple)
smille10 at sbcglobal.net
Thu Mar 30 21:16:49 EST 2006
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Herman Meester [mailto:crazymulgogi at gmail.com]
> Your example of 2K 5,9 is interesting. Syntactically, your option
> seems possible. However, I think the fact that "Le-Dawid" and the
> designations Mizmor, etc., are never separated except in 30, isn't
> important. The order is important. "Mizmor le-Dawid" could mean "A
> psalm of David", but "Le-Dawid mizmor" would rather mean "David has a
> psalm." We should not translate that, of course. So I'd suggest: "By
> David. A psalm."
[Steve Miller] thanks very much Herman. That is helpful.
After searching for the verb עֲמֹד followed by the preposition le, I think 2
K 5:9 is similar to 1 Kg 20:38.
וַיֵּלֶךְ הַנָּבִיא וַיַּעֲמֹד לַמֶּלֶךְ עַל־הַדָּרֶךְ וַיִּתְחַפֵּשׂ
The verb (MD עֲמֹד followed by the preposition le, means to wait for.
So 2 K 5:9 should be translated, So Naaman came with his horses and with his
chariots, and *waited* at the door of the house for Elisha.
> In Psalms 25-28, 35, 37, 72, 103, 138, 144 we find only "le-Dawid" or
> "li-Shlomo", which means these titles can stand on their own.
> Apparently, the various designations don't have to make up a sentence.
> For psalm 30, then, I'd say
> Song of the Dedication of the House.
> By David.
> To answer your original question, I think the second option is better.
> The reason, to me, is simply that I wonder why David's own house
> should be "dedicated". It's not a religiously relevant building
> ("house" in the sense "dynasty" is not the issue here). But I may be
> wrong, would you know of any people's houses being "dedicated" (not
> "blessed"), in Tanakh? I don't remember, but that's no guarantee.
[Steve Miller] The references given by Peter, both in Hebrew & Aramaic,
show you to be right, that "dedicated" refers to something religious.
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