[b-hebrew] Also asking a question - Re: YHWH is Aramaic?
hholmyard at ont.com
Thu Jun 29 10:50:42 EDT 2006
>Why can't both be true? G-d gave a Name to Himself from the
>beginning, and communicated it to mankind, and inherent in the Name
>is a certain idea of Himself.
HH: Our understanding is that "Yahweh" has a meaning like "He is/will
be." Some give it a causative idea. Anyway, it is an odd name as
something one calls oneself. But as a teaching tool and as a way for
human beings to refer to God, it seems great. So perhaps it appears
artificial to think that God in eternity called himself "He is." Also,
the name seems to be Hebrew name. So you would have to suppose that God
naturally thinks in Hebrew in eternity, or that he translated some other
name into Hebrew. I mean, of course these things are possible, but they
just seem less likely to me than that he contrived this name to
communicate to us.
>Also, can you remind me why Ehyeh asher Ehyeh is translated as I AM
>and not in future? Every Jewish Commentary, when expounding on it,
>makes the assumption that we all know that the word is used as
HH: I think the best reason is that the name seems more natural as a
present tense verb later in the verse where it is used as a name. Here
is the NRSV:
Ex. 3:14 God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” He said further, “Thus you
shall say to the Israelites, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’”
HH: A name like "I will be" seems odd because it is only future. What
about the present? Isn't God anything now? A name like "I am" is always
suitable in any situation where God is needed.
More information about the b-hebrew