[b-hebrew] Ex3:14
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Mon Sep 12 12:48:27 EDT 2005
@Vadim: You wrote
Whether a translation asnwers a particular question is irrelevant, though
one can prefer "I am" to "I will be" only on theological grounds. What is
relevant, is grammatical correctness. I showed few weeks ago on this list
that a theory of tenseless Hebrew is absurd, and Hebrew use of tenses is
perfectly consistent. Grammatically, the meaning is "I will be."
Vadim Cherny
Response: Well, don't you think that a translation should make sense? Even though I understand your point of grammar, I don't think one can do proper translation without context.
--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
-------------- Original message --------------
> On 12/09/2005 07:19, Vadim Cherny wrote:
>
> > ...
> >
> >
> >We discussed this issue with issue a short while ago, and I proved
> >decisively that Hebrew uses tenses absolutely correctly, in standard sense,
> >but allows, like Russian, deictic centre shifts. The theory of tenseless
> >Hebrew makes sense only for people who believe that all world uses tenses as
> >English and German speakers.
> >
> >
>
> Vadim, whatever you may consider you have proved, in the light of recent
> discussions, you can only claimed to have "proved decisively" if your
> results have been published in a peer reviewed academic journal and
> gained wide acceptance. And for that to happen you would have to go into
> several linguistic issues in considerably more depth than you have done
> on this list. Otherwise I think the best that you can claim is to have
> an alternative hypothesis or theory.
>
> >Besides, as I also noted, how many yiqtols elsewhere are translated with
> >present continuous?
> >
> >
>
> Quite a lot. Rolf probably has figures for this. But you will find that
> only a small proportion of YIQTOLs in the Hebrew Bible are translated as
> non-modal futures.
>
> --
> Peter Kirk
> peter at qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
>
>
>
> --
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