[b-hebrew] Daniel 6:27 (time indefinite) II

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Wed Nov 16 07:39:12 EST 2005


@Solomon:

I thought about this and I don't think time indefinite is a good translation.  We were discussing whether or not it makes sense to an English speaker and here are my thoughts on basic English.

1. The prefix "in" means no or not.
2.  Once you put "in" in front of definite, it literally means "not definite."
3.  For example and indefinite pronoun would be anyone or someone.
4.  Indefinite article can refer to "a person, a car."  It is not specific.
5.  Likewise, when placed infront of time, it means no specific time which as I have stated earlier can refer to 10 minutes or 15 years or eternalty.
6.  WLM is always referring to a long time, long duration.  The possibility of it just referring to something "not specific" is not there.

--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> 
> Not so. If you Google "olam indefinite time," as I did, you will have a 
> much different result. None of the first references was to the NWT or 
> Jehovah's Witnesses, but to word studies done by others that equate "olam" with 
> an 
> indefinite time. One of such references goes back to James Orr, M.A., D.D., 
> general editor of the "International Standard Bible Encyclopedia," published 
> in 1915. 
> 
> Besides, I thought the objective academic issue was not who uses the term, 
> but whether the term is an accurate representation of the Hebrew "olam." Once 
> we go off subjectively into other matters and play the "sect" card, the 
> discussion devolves to another plane. 
> 
> Solomon Landers 
> . 
> 
> In a message dated 11/15/2005 6:39:26 A.M. Pacific Standard Time, 
> peter at qaya.org writes: 
> 
> Do you have any reason to change your mind? It seems to me that these 
> translators did indeed make up the expression, or perhaps they borrowed 
> it from earlier teaching of their sect. 
> 
> 
> 
> 
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