[b-hebrew] )by$ and )dM in Job 38:26
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at juno.com
Sat Feb 12 16:52:36 EST 2005
On Sat, 12 Feb 2005 13:09:46 -0800 "C. Stirling Bartholomew"
<jacksonpollock at earthlink.net> writes:
> Job 38:26 lhm+yr (l-)rC l)-)y$ mdbr l)-)dM bw
> Theodotian renders l)-)y$ and l)-)dM in Job 38:26 as
> (ou ouc aner and (ou ouc anthropos.
> I wonder if this accurately reflects an intended **semantic**
> between )y$ and )dM? Or does the choice of two words with similar
> have something to do with Hebrew poetics, parallelism, etc? In other
> do we go astray by stressing the difference in meaning between the
> two words
> if the authors intent was unrelated to a difference in meaning?
> It has been suggested that l)-)y$ and l)-)dM function as adjectives
> a place with no human habitation. Does anyone think there is an
> **semantic** distinction between )y$ and )dM?
> Clay Bartholomew
Yes, it's just stylistic variation without a real difference in meaning
regarding )iY$ and )fDfM. I would try to find two different words to use
in English for them so long as it doesn't seem to indicate a distinction
between the two. Perhaps that can't be easily done and you may need to
settle for "unihabited land" // "where no man dwells."
More information about the b-hebrew