[b-hebrew] Isaiah 7
kwrandolph at email.com
Sun Apr 3 21:51:26 EDT 2005
And there are plenty of people who claim that the text, analysing it linguistically, indicates while a particular woman was meant, that there was no indication that it had to be a woman who was alive at the time Isaiah said it.
In this I'm reminded of the prophesy concerning Josiah in 1 Kings 13:2. From the immediate text, one would conclude that this Josiah was already born, but it wasn't until centuries later that that prophesy was fulfilled.
Therefore, if Isaiah was prophesying in the same manner as the prophesy above, there is no reason to insist that the woman be alive at that time. And that she was called "the virgin" means that it is a sign, because virgins don't get pregnant and give birth.
Karl W. Randolph.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il>
> As several respondents have already written, there is no indication in the
> text of Isaiah that ISAIAH meant any young woman, other than one who was
> present, alive, young and preganant at the time, be she Isaiah's wife,
> Ahaz's wife or a local prostitute. The sign was that by the time the child
> was grown, the Assyrians would be gone.
> It was Matthew (or his source-traditions) who chose to understand the young
> woman as referring to Mary. Whether the pre-Christian LXX did or did not use
> "parthenos" to translate "almah" is moot. since we have no pre-Christian
> manuscripts of the LXX.
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