[b-hebrew] Almah vs. Bethulah in Isaiah 7

Myshalom777 at aol.com Myshalom777 at aol.com
Sat Apr 2 10:17:11 EST 2005


 
In a message dated 02/04/2005 16:05:34 GMT Daylight Time, gfsomsel at juno.com  
writes:

Let me  turn the tables on you a bit.  This birth is said to be a sign  to
Ahaz.  A sign would need to be something which the one to whom it  is
given would witness.  If it is regarding the birth of Jesus Christ,  an
event several hundred years later, how then is it a sign to Ahaz since  he
will never witness it?  Also, if  it is regarding a nearer event as well
as a more remote event (i.e. that  there was some kind of fulfilment in
the time it was originally given, and  if it refers to a virgin birth, are
there then two virgin births in  scripture?

george
gfsomsel


It seems to me Mark Eddy gave a very good response to your point almost a  
year ago when this topic came up on this list. Here it is again :
 
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Subj:Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 7:13 ha-alma and xarah 
Date:12/05/2004  18:23:34 GMT Daylight  Time
From:markeddy at adams.net
To:b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent from  the Internet (Details)
 
 
Isaiah does not say that the sign is "for Ahas." Ahaz refused to ask for a  
sign.(v. 12). So instead of giving a sign of Ahaz's choosing, the Lord will 
give  a sign to the "house of David" (v. 13). In  verse 11
Isaiah addressed  Ahaz with the singular Sha(aL LKa ("Listen, you!") but in 
verse 13 Isaiah  switches to referring to the "house of David" in the plural 
(MiKKeM, and the  verb TaL(U, also LaKem in verse 14). Ahaz
is just the most recent part of the  house of David, which has tried God's 
patience for a long time. The sign is for  the whole house of David, not 
primarily for the king in that house at that  particular  time.
 
Mark Eddy
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