[b-hebrew] Re: Hebrew "Nominative"
farmerjoeblo at hotmail.com
Wed Sep 29 02:21:35 EDT 2004
Inter alios, Brockelmann, Noldeke, Ewald, Jouon (Muraoka did away with this
in the English translation and revision), Davidson (I think) and Gibson all
argued this way. I can't understand why they did - but then I approach the
data having read the analyses of Zewi and Muraoka. Hindsight is often easier
>From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock at earthlink.net>
>To: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo at hotmail.com>,<b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
>Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re: Hebrew "Nominative"
>Date: Tue, 28 Sep 2004 22:16:57 -0700
>On 9/28/04 4:26 PM, "David Kummerow" <farmerjoeblo at hotmail.com> wrote:
> > Personally, I don't like the resort to "pleonasm". I think it often
> > the issue and fails to give an account of a feature of the language. The
> > words "I don't know" could often be substituted for the word
>Exactly. It is like saying the pronoun was "dropped" from this clause. The
>pronoun wasn't dropped any more than HYH is dropped from a verbless clause.
> > As for your examples, note that they are verbless clauses. It has been
> > popular in the past to regard this use of hw' as a copula. However, I
> > Zewi and Muraoka argue convincingly that this is not the case.
>How can a pronoun function as a copula? No need to answer this, since it
>isn't correct but as Hellenist, the notion strikes me as strange.
>See also my reply to Peter and Dave W.
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