[b-hebrew] WAV Conjunction
wattswestmaas at eircom.net
Sat May 29 10:57:59 EDT 2004
Hello board members, I do not want to open a fiery debate about the
infamous use of the WAV conjunction/consecutive since I have read many of
your hot debates about this matter.
What I really would like to appreciate is this: WHY is the tense of the
classical hebrew verb, for the greater part, dictated by this one letter
prefix. While I understand that classical hebrew really only exists in the
PERFECT and IMPERFECT 'idea' -- I wondered if there was some explanation
for the central position that this WAV occupies in the hebraic thinking of
'time'? Past, present and future tenses seem such a logical way to
ravel -- but is this really a MODERN CONCEPT in language?
I know that context plays a part in determining 'time' but this 'context' is
an emphasis used in the translation process. The hebrews did not need to
translate but simply 'understand'. The WAV plays a hugely important role
and one that IRONICALLY leads to quite some debate rather than clarity in
I will appreciate all your comments.
Thankyou - Chris.
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