[b-hebrew] Prophetic Perfect? Psalm 107
peterkirk at qaya.org
Sat May 22 18:52:42 EDT 2004
On 22/05/2004 12:57, furuli at online.no wrote:
> Dear Peter,
> In order to have an intelligent exchange, please answer the question I
> posed to Vadim: If you use a modern linguistic approach, how can you
> know whether the WAYYIQTOL of )MR in Gen 1:3 has past reference
> because past tense is a *semantic* part of the form or whether the
> past reference is *pragmatic*?
I don't accept the presupposition behind this question, that there is a
clean distinction between "semantic" and "pragmatic". Indeed I think the
WAYYIQTOL discussions have demonstrated the absurdity of trying to make
such a rigid distinction.
> Also, please address my Phoenician examples (and similar examples from
> the Amarna letters) of infinitive absolutes functioning as finite
> verbs with past reference. Do they represent past tense
> ("grammaticalized location in time"), or is their past reference just
Why should I? Why are they relevant? Again you are trying to get me to
make a distinction which I don't accept.
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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