Fw: [b-hebrew] LORD
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Fri Feb 14 11:16:54 EST 2003
In a message dated 2/14/2003 11:10:53 AM Eastern Standard Time,
markeddy at adams.net writes:
> Why assume that the compiler(s) of the 5 books of Psalms did NOT know who
> wrote the Psalms? Why assume
> that we today know more than they did? Isn't it best to place more weight
> on primary documents rather than
> on the doubts of people who lived over 2000 years later? There is
> absolutely no ancient evidence to
> contradict the Davidic authoriship of this Psalm. If we don't know who
> wrote this Psalm, we don't know who
> wrote Plato's writings, or Josephus's works. It seems best to accept the
> testimony of the compilers of the
> Psalms. If they didn't know who wrote a Psalm, they left it without title.
> They knew that David wrote Ps.
> 110. We need really good reasons to assume that they didn't know this.
>
There is a very good reason to suppose "that the compiler(s) of the 5 books
of Psalms did NOT know who wrote the Psalms". This is contained within this
psalm itself. Who is reference by La)DoNiY "to my lord"? Surely, upon the
supposition that the superscription intends to state that David wrote it, you
don't intend to state that David is referring to himself as "my lord"?
gfsomsel
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