Lisbeth S. Fried
lizfried at umich.edu
Fri Feb 14 09:40:47 EST 2003
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Yigal Levin"
> > I'm not Walter, but the Hebrew MT of Ps. 110:1 says: "YHWH
> said to my lord"
> > (look at JPS), "Adoni", NOT using the plural form "Adonai",
> which is used
> > for "The Lord". In the Jewish tradition, YHWH is NOT
> speaking to a divine
> > figure, but to a human, whom the psalmist calls "my lord". From the
> > context, this would probably be a priest.
> I fail to find one instance in which a king (or anybody else)
> calls a priest "my lord" or anything like
Why do you assume David or even a davidic king wrote this psalm?
It is in the third person, and written by a temple or court scribe or
He says that YHWH spoke to his Adon, i.e., YHWH spoke to his lord, his
An anonymous poet is speaking, not the king, and certainly not David.
As for no one ever addressing a priest by the title "lord," we have
it all over the place at Elephantine.
TAD A4.3 begins "To my lords Jedaniah, Uriah and [the other] priests
of YHW the god...."
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