Lisbeth S. Fried
lizfried at umich.edu
Wed Dec 26 11:34:21 EST 2001
It should probably be translated "him."
The Hebrew has "us" as Shoshana notes,
but the sense of the passage (referring to Jacob)
suggests "him" and so the versions have translated it.
On the other hand, it is possible that a double-entendre
is meant here, or a Freudian slip by the author.
Jacob stands really for the whole Northern Kingdom,
and Hosea chastises them throughout for worship at
Beth-El (House of God), which he calls Beth-Aven (House of Iniquity).
(Tho see an interesting article by N.Na'aman on that.)
It could be that the author is now saying that the angel
encountered us at Bet-el, and strove with us there, putting
himself along with the people he is castigating.
Hosea doesn't do that elsewhere tho, he never puts himself
along with the people he blames. So, it probably should be
emmended to "him" with the versions.
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Ted Mann [mailto:theomann at earthlink.net]
> Sent: Tue, December 25, 2001 11:30 AM
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Hosea 12:4
> Greetings good friends:
> It has been pointed out to me that the last part of Hosea 12:4 is
> translated into English as "And there He spoke with us," and sometimes as
> "And there He spoke with him." Why the difference, and which is correct?
> Many thanks.
> Dr. Theodore H. Mann
> theomann at earthlink.net
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