[B-Greek] Using future as imperative?
curtis at curtishinson.com
Wed Nov 9 04:39:55 EST 2005
Well, Luke-writer here is quoting from a Greek version of Devarim, or
more likely paraphrasing from memory to suit his point. Check your CF
notes in a Nestle-Aland. Rahlf's text reads:
Deuteronomy 6:13 κυριον τον θεον σου φοβηθηση και αυτω λατρευσεις και
προς αυτον κολληθηση και τω ονοματι αυτου ομη
KURION TON QEON FOBHQHSH KAI AUTW LATREUSEIS KAI PROS AUTON KOLLHQHSH
KAI TW ONOMATI AUTOU OMH
Which reads in BHS4 as:
תירא ואתו תעבד
Devarim 6:13 ´et-yhwh(´ädönäy) ´élöhÊºkä Tîrä´ wü´ötô ta`áböd ûbišmô
A couple of qal imperfects. Soncino, Stone, Herz, and the Jewish
Publication Society Tanakh render those as imperitives, "Thous shalt" or
"You shall". The Etz Chaim chumash reads "Revere only the Lord your God
and worship Him alone, and swear only by His name." In their commentary
it says "worship. And obey. This is a common term in the ancient Near
East both for worshiping deities and for obeying kings..."
I don't know why the future is used in Greek, but it is widely taken as
a command in any case. That whole section of Devarim is full of power,
authority, and command-force.
Bless the Name
Waldemar Martens wrote the following on 11/9/2005 1:16 AM:
>I have a question about the following passage:
>KURION TON QEON SOU PROSKUNHSEIS KAI AUTW MONW LATREUSEIS (Luke 4,8b)
>The grammatical form of the two verbs ist future. So why this is commonly translated as:
>"You shall worship the Lord your God, and him only shall you serve. " (AKJV) ?
>I would translate this as.
>"You WILL worship the Lord your God and will serve him only"
>Did I missunderstand something?
>Student from Germany
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