[B-Greek] Using future as imperative?
waldemar_martens at web.de
Wed Nov 9 02:16:26 EST 2005
I have a question about the following passage:
KURION TON QEON SOU PROSKUNHSEIS KAI AUTW MONW LATREUSEIS (Luke 4,8b)
The grammatical form of the two verbs ist future. So why this is commonly translated as:
"You shall worship the Lord your God, and him only shall you serve. " (AKJV) ?
I would translate this as.
"You WILL worship the Lord your God and will serve him only"
Did I missunderstand something?
Student from Germany
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