Barbara D. Colt
babc2 at comcast.net
Thu May 20 16:44:18 EDT 2004
On 20 May 2004 at 16:01, Barry wrote:
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 at comcast.net>
> To: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Thursday, May 20, 2004 3:03 PM
> Subject: [B-Greek] PARADIDWMI
> > I note with interest that a recent author of a book on Judas seems
> > to claim that the verb PARADIDWMI was never used with the sense of
> > "betray" and therefore that translations of, say, 1 Cor 15:24 in
> > which Paul is made to speak of Jesus' "betrayal", rather than his
> > being "handed over" are wrong.
> > And yet I see that LSJ notes that "betray" is indeed one of the
> > senses with which PARADIDOMI was used. So does Spicq.
> > So who is correct in this? Are there indeed instances in
> > Hellenistic literature where PARADIDWMI clearly means "betray"?
> It's hard to say without evaluating the specific arguments. Does the
> author deal directly with the citations from the lexical sources which
> claim that the word does mean betray? How is the evidence from the NT
I don't quite see how Judas could be said to have "turned over' our
Lord to the authorities.To do that Judas would have had to have had
physical custody of our Lord and personally transferred that custody
to the High Priests (or whoever). What he did, so far as I can tell,
was to tell the temple authorities where he might be found away from
the crowds and to guide them to him. That could certainly be called
'betrayal," but it couldn't, in English at least, be called "handing
Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2 at comcast.net
St John the Evangelist, San Francisco
>From envy, hatred, and malice and all uncharitableness
Good Lord, deliver us.
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