Still struggling with the other question I had mentioned last time ("If there is a physical/biological brain location for language (surely dyadic), how is that this dyadic structure creates triadic thought? Aren't we back to Descartes' dilemma of how a mind/body interacts?"). I didn't quite understand Ken's answer: ("More like we're already in it when we assume that the dyadic and the
triadic happen in totally different contexts. Why not one is subsumed to the other? But can that be explained dyadically? No.")
Karey
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