Jerry:On Mon, Jul 15, 2013 at 10:54 PM, Jerry Shepherd <jshepherd53 AT gmail.com> wrote:
Karl,This was your statement that led to the prompting of the question:"There is more likelihood that the pronunciation changed when a “corrupted version” (Mishnaic Hebrew), was spoken."This is all the more the reason why I’m asking your for your definitions. In this sentence, Mishnaic Hebrew is already the corrupted language. That you didn’t recognize this makes me question how much you understand.Blessings,JerryKarl W. Randolph.
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