You are obviously right that the exact pronounciation developed
…
between Biblical times and the times of the Masoretic codices we know
today. But this changes nothing on the fact that the Masoretic
tradition is a reliable one: the vast majority of changes that
happened to this tradition are simple sound shifts (and similar phenomena)
that have absolutely no influence on the ability to discern particular
forms, i.e. it has no influence on the meaning.
So Karl's claim that because the Masoretic pronounciation doesn't
reflect exactly the pronounciation "in the biblical times" (which itself
may mean many things given the complicated textual history of the bible!)
it shouldn't be trusted - or worse, one can arbitrarily "vocalize"
the consonantal text is a complete nonsense.
P.T.
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