> >>>The argument is:
> So the evidence is that because the Ugaritic grammar has this pattern,
> therefore it must be found in Biblical Hebrew as well? Why should I buy
> that argument?
a) semitic languages build causative stems either using the ha-/ʾa- prefix
or using a ša- prefix. (or variants thereof...)
b) the infix -it- makes a reflexive stem variant in semitic languages
So a stem having a š- prefix and -it- infix is a regular causative
reflexive stem from the point of view of a comparative semitic grammar.
The only problem is that for Hebrew š- prefix is not the primary
way of how causative stems are build. This poses however no problem
since one finds such rare stems in many other semitic languages.
See e.g. שׁזיב in Aramaic and so on.
Petr Tomasek
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