Karl's non-answer aside,
we would, of course, assign a past time sphere, to use the question's terminology, and we would do so because the wayyiqtol pattern preserves or retains an old perfective form. The introduction to Leviticus makes this clear.
Dear list,
if we perceived a text comprising only of one word, e.g. וַיֹּ֙אמֶר , to which time sphere would we sort the proposition, and why would we do so?
Frank
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.