Karl,
This will *probably* be my last post on this subject, since I fear
that we risk the wrath of the moderators for writing too much on Greek
and Coptic, and not enough on Hebrew...
> On Sat, Dec 8, 2012 at 10:59 AM, Will Parsons <wbparsons AT alum.mit.edu>wrote:
>...I haven't been offered a trip back in time in the tardis to interview
> Just because Dionysios Thrax who was trying to make a description of
> classical Greek for a Koiné speaking audience claimed that “ks” was not a
> phoneme, did the man on the street who was writing phonemically agree with
> him? Or even the man on the street writing pre-classical Greek agree with
> him? I think not.
the "man in the street" in ancient Greece, so Dionysios Thrax is my
best approximation. Speculating that the ordinary ancient Greek would
have seen things differently is, well, speculation.
A change in pronunciation - how so? There was no change in
>
> But it does represent a change in pronunciation, which argues against your
> claim.
pronunciation in going from /k/ + /s/ to /ks/.
--
Will Parsons
μη φαινεσθαι, αλλ' ειναι.
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