As Jerry points out, reading the suffix as 1cpl would be unparalleled.
But it may not be necessary to suggest that the 3ms "refer[s] to a
plural entity." In v. 6, David has already used, first the plural (עניים
and אביונים), then the singular (לו, and depending on one's
interpretation of the verb, יפיח) to refer to the righteous poor (the
same object of discussion as in v. 8). Is the psalmist clumsily ignoring
the number of the suffix (he could, after all, have written תצרם or the
like), or is he making a deliberate rhetorical move, in both cases
reminding the reader that the general principle of God's care for the
righteous poor as a class (first colon in each verse) manifests itself
in his specific provision for the individual (second colon)?
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