Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Different binyan, same meaning?
Date: Mon, 9 Jul 2012 15:40:11 -0700
Pere:
On Thu, Jul 5, 2012 at 11:22 AM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:
> So, and putting aside this verse (Ecc 9:12), is it right to state that in
> a general way there is NO difference between the Qal passive Participle and
> the Niph'al Participle concerning their meanings?
>
> Pere Porta
>
> No, this is not “NO difference”, rather that there is an overlap of
meaning where either can be used. David Kolinsky makes a good point as to
the differences, yet even there the overlap of action can be seen. In
poetic use, either can be used to fit the meter of the song.