And then never corrected by any later copyist or printer?
Many of the Jewish commentators, such as Ibn-Ezra, claim that the unique
feature is "letif'eret haqeri'ah" - "for the glory of reading". In other
words, since this is poetry and the niqud and cantilation marks are meant as
an aid to aural recitation of the text, so that the reader emphasizes that
the word "Miqdash" is not connected to the following "Adonai" ("the temple,
Lord", and not "the temple of the Lord").
What d'yall think?
Yigal Levin
-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of George Athas
Sent: Sunday, February 05, 2012 10:45 AM
To: B-Hebrew
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Miqdash
Seems like a classic case of bad aim. A scribe burning the midnight oil?
GEORGE ATHAS
Director of Postgraduate Studies,
Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)
Sydney, Australia
In all of the places in which the word "Miqdash" (temple, sanctuary)
appears, there is a dagesh on the dalet. Only in Ex. 15:17, the dagesh is on
the qoph. This is consistent in all of the editions that I have checked,
including BHS. Anyone have any idea why?