To center the question I paste the version NET for the last part of the
verse:
Why do you say nothing when the wicked devour those more righteous than they
are?
My first question is:
Does it make sense saying that someone is "more righteous" than a wicked?
Can someone wicked be (even) somewhat, a little righteous?
Is the last part of the verse really comparing the righteousness of a
righteous with the righteousness of a wicked? Or....... it rather says
something different?
And another question (Karl Randolph, do you have, as a lexicographer, an
answer to it?): what does here BL( (devour) mean in our today language?
What does it mean that a wiched "devours" a righteous?
1. That the wicked kills the righteous?
2. That the wicked in some way oppresses the righteous?