the writer said, "In another example, this one from the Book of Deuteronomy,
a passage referring to commandments given by God "to you" once read "to us,"
a significant change in meaning."
What could possible be a significant change in Deut. by changing 'to us' to
'to you'? In all of the verses I've examined so far, it wouldn't seem to
matter if Moses was including himself in the conversation or not, but maybe
I'm missing the bigger picture...
--
Thanks,
Chris E. Echols
AVI-SPL
[b-hebrew] scholars trace Bible's evolution,
Chris Echols, 08/13/2011