The first part of the verse is what is giving me a problem — קשׁת גברים
חתים Q$T GBRYM XTYM. Literal translation appears to be “the bow of
terrifying mighty ones”. XHYM in its form and place is an adjective
modifying GBRYM, it does not effect the noun Q$T. From the context, Hannah
is making a contrasting parallelism, but there is no verb to indicate that
contrast. At least not in traditional understanding.
The LXX has τοξον δυνατων ησθενησεν which indicates the possibility of a
copyist error. Or is it that the translator didn’t understand it either, but
recognized it as a contrasting parallelism so translated it as such?
But is Q$T a noun? Or is it the missing verb? Or is there some other answer?
Zephaniah 2:1 has a verb that appears to be QW$, of which Q$T could be the
Qal Qatal 2nd person sing. form. In Zephaniah we don’t have enough context
to tell us what is its meaning, other than it is negative (any clues from
cognate languages?), so is this a second use of that verb?
Right now I am inclined to view that as a verb, a homograph to a noun and as
such causing confusion. But we don’t have enough data to define it. What do
you all say?