Barry,
Thank you for answering me.
I am trying to understand why they move the "le" in Malachi 2:4 and in
Isaiah 49:6.
Malachi 2:4 usually says "I have sent this commandment to you (le) that
(for) My covenant to be with Levi" instead of "I have sent this
commandment to you for (le) the being of My covenant with Levi". Does it
literally say "for the being of My covenant" of "for My covenant to be"?
Is common to move the "le" or is it just done in this kind of quote?
Isaiah 49:6 is translated as "I have given you for a light of nations to
be My salvation unto the ends of the earth" or "I have given you for a
light of nations for My salvation to be unto the ends of the earth."
Should it literally be translated "for the being of My salvation"? Are
infinitives used as constructs or whatever they grammatically call this?
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