Isaac,
what do you mean by "the dagesh is not a part of the NIQUD"?
I brought here some months ago the difference between
1. YFMIYM, days (Gn 4:3)
and
2. YAM.IYM, seas (Ps 8:9)
Why the dagesh does not belong to the niqud?
We have
1. DFMIYM, bloods (Ex 4:25) (no dagesh) and
2. BFT.IYM, houses (Ex 1:21) (dagesh).
We have SWSIYM, horses (2Sa 15:1) (no dagesh) versus DWB.IYM, bears (2K 2:24) (dagesh).
And there are many more like these...
How do you explain this if the dagesh is not a part of the niqud?
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
2011/4/15 Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
A hirek is followed by a dagesh. The dagesh ("forte") is, in my opinion, no more than an ancient cue for the hireq, as in IWER, 'blind'. In other words, the dagesh is not a part of the NIQUD.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On Apr 14, 2011, at 12:40 AM, Pere Porta wrote:
Are there in Hebrew nouns, adjectives,
adverbs... having ONLY a hireq in their first syllable and a sere in their
second syllable (no dagesh, no shewa, no patah furtivum... at all!)?
--
Pere Porta
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