Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Words adopted into Biblical Hebrew Vocabulary
Date: Tue, 08 Mar 2011 16:34:44 -0800
On 8 Mar 2011 at 20:26, George Athas wrote:
> There is, of course, no logical reason why could not have
> been known to a 10th century BC Solomon. However, it would be highly
> unusual for a single word from Persian indicating a luxury estate to
> be so widely known that it made its way into Hebrew and was able to
> describe an equivalent phenomenon known in Judah at a time when
> Persia was a measly little kingdom up in the Zagros Mountains away
> from major highways and trade routes. It makes a lot more sense that
> this word was disseminated through a number of languages when Persia
> was actually able to influence them.
If, as you say, Persia was nothing more than a wide place in the caravan
trail in the time of
Solomon, could it be that the word moved the opposite direction? That is,
could it be a
Hebrew/Semitic word that passed into Persian at some point?
Like you, I don't have a dog in this fight, I'm just curious as to people's
thoughts about such
a possibility.