Hello all;
In deuteronomy 2:25, we have:
a. the verb אחל (alef, chet, lamed) manifest in yiqtol form; and
b. the verb וחלו (waw, chet, lamed, waw) expressed in weqatal form.
Since yiqtol and qatal forms appear susceptible of encoding the same menu of
tenses and aspects, does some context or other reason necessitate the
selection of these two forms, for these two verbs, in these two instances,
respectively? Or does the appearance of these two forms represent a mere
arbitrary choice by the author, the choice of the other form representing
proper grammar also?
I invite your comments.
regards,
fred burlingame
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