I just want to ask if the Biblical Hebrew Grammar that was developed***
really come from European languages?
E.g. the whole Kal (p'al), pi'el, nif'al, hitpa'el, hif'il, hof'al and
pu'al verbal forms are part of standard Hebrew
Grammars, but is not found in any European languages as far as I know.
Or are these only applicable to Mishnaic
and Modern Hebrew, and not also to Biblical Hebrew? What is probable,
is that the correct verbal form of a verb might many
times not be visible in the consonant-only Hebrew texts of Biblical
Hebrew, especially before the usage of the
early forms of "plene" spelling (using waw and yod as placeholders for vowels).
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.