We have in Ex 18:1 noun XOT"N, father-in-law.
We have in 1Sa 18:18 XFTFN, son-in-law or daughter's husband.
It seems clear that both nouns are related: their consonants are the same
and appear in the same order....
I'm wondering whether there is a good reason for this:
Pattern of XOT"N is that of Qal Participle while pattern of XFTFN is that of
many Hebrew nouns (such as DFBFR, word (Gn 18:14) or ZFKFR, male in Gn
1:27).
Would the reverse equally have been possible?
Namely, that XOT"N would mean daughter's husband and XFTFN would mean
father-in-law...
Is there any reason for things having gone the way they have gone and not
the reverse way?