Asking "Are both forms right?" I was rather thinking, Isaac, of modern Hebrew.
We dealt in the past with your view about the Academy of the Hebrew Language (and moderator Yigal asked you what you would say if someone states that the "Mathematical Society of the United States of America" consists of several dozens of druids).
Concerning my first question, both forms are attested in the biblical text but maybe in today Hebrew only one is considered as being right.
Another example:
In today Hebrew the form KULLAK, all you (female) we find in Is 22:1 is no more considered right. Or, if you prefer, it is no more used [but this does not mean that this form should be removed from the Bible].
The form KULLEK (all you, female) (found in Is 14:29) is considered as being right and used instead in today Hebrew.
This is the intention of my question.
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