1. You wrote: “Updating of the text at a later time to reflect later phonology.”
That is to say, the names of two of Jacob’s sons were originally spelled $M(N and ZBLN, but centuries later, a 1st millennium BCE editor put a vav in those two names, to reflect how those two names had come to be pronounced.
But on that theory of the case, why are 40% of the personal names in the Bible that have a vav nun suffix in the Patriarchal narratives?
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