Before the Babylonian Exile, there were no BGD-KPT softening of***
consonants, so any doubling would have to be explicit, rather than implicit
using a dot.
Karl W. Randolph.
I must say that I'm really impressed by the number of people on this list who tend to make statements without any reservations and without any kind of substantiation about "X Y Z was/were A B C".***
A.F
How often does one want to read a long dissertation to defend a simple concept? For the most part, is that not overkill?****
I really wonder how the above statement can receive any beginning of substantiation.***
Where is there substantiation for the claim that there was a softening of the BGD-KPT in Biblical times? I’m not questioning about 1000 AD, just 1450–600 BC? There’s none, outside of theory. Would >not some of the transliterations from later contradict the claim that BGD-KPT existed in Biblical times, or at least bring it into question?***
Perplexed...***
Maybe the moderators should request that anyone who makes that kind of abrupt claim should at least provide one on-line reference.
What sort of reference would you accept?***
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