> let me see if i understand.
>
> a. the waw consecutive, changes the verb from imperfect to perfect
> tense
> here.
No. The prefix "converts" the verb in some way that we still don't fully
understand, but
assomeone else pointed out, the resulting form is most commonly used as a
basic narrative.
> b. but the corresponding pronunciation of the verb changes from
> imperfect to
> perfect tense pronunciation, only in hiphil form.
It depends on a host of phonetic factors, as well as the verb itself. There
is no one "perfect
tense pronunciation" or "imperfect" tense pronunciation.
> c. "apocopated" doesn't look any shorter to me in terms of numbers
> of
> letters in the hiphil form.
The apocopated forms are only evident in certain verbs. You need to spend a
LOT more
time in the scholarly literature before you try to go after this aspect of
the language.