Hi, folks.
At comparing 'abinu' (Gn19:31) with 'abihem' (Gn 37:4)... I remark that the
first has qamats under the aleph while the latter has hatef patah.
Is there a good reason for this? Should not there be either qamats or hatef
patah in both cases?
I thought of the different position of the stress: paroxytone (abinu) versus
oxytone (abihem).... But would this be a sufficient reason for the
different vowel?
Pere Porta
Re: [b-hebrew] is it logical?,
Pere Porta, 11/02/2010