Perhaps the structure of Hebrew and Aramaic explains why we have a distinction between unlenited double letters and lenited single letters. Both Aramaic and Hebrew seem to have lost the fricative forms of gdtk, (and didn't have pb) which would allow those consonants to weaken to fricatives. The other languages retained the fricatives and so lenition was less likely. I still think it is somewhat odd if it is due to Hurrian influence that it is almost 1000 years before we see evidence of this. Should it not have been more evident closer to Hurrian times?***
Kevin Riley
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