Randall:
I'm initially skeptical but open to look at evidence of semitisms in the
Gospels. One early question is whether "koine" Greek, as a spoken, living,
first century "language" contained semitisms. In other words, when Semitic
Peoples learned Greek, did elements (vocabulary, idiom, syntax) of their
ancestoral tongue bleed into the new language? If so, the presence of semitic
traces in the NT text may not indicate a Hebrew or Aramaic Vorlage.
Make sense?
-Ted Brownstein
In a message dated 10/17/2010 2:47:18 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,
randallbuth AT gmail.com writes:
One needs to distinguish sources, translated into Greek and possibly
used by gospel writers from the gospel writers themselves.
Linguistic evidence in gospels does point to Semitisms, and
specifically a Hebrew narrative (note Aramaic) behind Mark and Luke.
Perhaps produced by Jerusalem church before the canonical gospels,
like Qumran community that chose Hebrew, and perhaps behind the Papias
statement, too.
Randall Buth
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