Notwithstanding the relevant traditional translations (Latin, Aramaic
etc) to Deuteronomy 13.12, 17.13 and 21.21, is there any grammatical or
lexical proof that the verb (yira'un; v'yira-u) means 'fear', and not
'see'? I would have expected at least a double yodh if the root were
yr', and not r-aleph-y. Thank you for your attention to this.