Thanks for the thoughts, Yigal. Does Demsky consider a shift for the toponyms
Adoraaim and Shaaraim? That is, does he propose that they originally may have
been Ador/Adoram and Shaar? Or is it that these particular toponyms are
simply known as being non-singular in form all along? The issue with
Jerusalem is that a shift does seem to have occurred.
I see your point about an Aramaism, but how do we account for the change in
the first half of the toponym (Ἱεροσόλυμα) to reflect a play on the word
temple?
GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au