Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Zechariah 3:4 "I will clothe"
Date: Sat, 13 Mar 2010 11:26:27 -0800 (PST)
There are so many instances in the HB where the infinitive absolute is used
where we would use today a finite verb, and we read the meaning from the
context. Can a specific reason be found for every time the infinitive
absolute is used (used in a way that looks awkward to us today), or was BH
generous in dispensing the infinitive absolute? I just find it difficult to
search for a special reason for the infinitive absolute where it crops up so
often in what looks like "the wrong place" to us today.