I am a self taught student of Hebrew so have no mentor to whom I can
address my questions. Of late I've been following your conversations with
interest and feel sure you can shed some light on something that puzzles me
for a
while.
In Psalm 29 the phrase 'voice of the Lord' is used 7 times to translate
the separate words Col Yhwh (excuse my transliteration!) - in verses 3, 4b,
5, 8 and 9. But in verses 4a and 7 col and Yhwh are joined with a maqqef.
Why is a maqqef used on two occasions but not the other 5? and is there any
difference in the translation?
I look forward to your comments with great interest.
Many thanks
Adrian Patterson
(N Wales UK)
[b-hebrew] Maqqefs in Psalm 29,
Adr1anpatterson, 03/08/2010