Gesenius is thought to have based his proposed punctuation of YHWH
[yod-patah-heh-shewa-waw-segol-heh] on IaBe in about 1815 A.D., [possibly
because information of Clement's use of Iaoue seemed to be difficult to
document between 1300 A.D. and about 1885 A.D.]
An early 1900's Catholic Encyclopedia sort of indicates that an unknown
Hebrew Scholar [i.e. Gesenius]
placed the vowels of "IaBe" into YHWH to create his proposed Hebrew
punctuation, which transliterates very nicely into English as "Yahweh"
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------
James, have you researched evidence for Clement's use of Iaoue, which
seems to provide strong evidence for "Yahweh" IF THE EVIDENCE IS ACTUALLY
TRUE?
Clement of Alexandria is credited with writing that YHWH was called
"Iaoue" in about 190 A.D., but my research indicates that neither
William Smith's 1863 "A Dictionary of the Bible" was aware of this, [in
1863] nor was Gesenius aware of this in the early 1800's.
Then suddenly in about 1885-1905 Otto Stahlin apparently out of nowhere
writes a critical edition of Clements' Stromata Book V Chapter 6:34 and
provides all sorts of evidence showing that old catenas proved that
Clement wrote "Iaoue" and not "Iaou" .
because of recent discussion I've been giving a lot of thought to
Theodoret's transliteration of YHWH as Iabe. The more I think about it
the
more it would seem to me that this transliteration would better fit
YeHaWeH
than YaHWeH. I is often used where we see 'Ye' in Hebrew and as Greek has
no
way of representing the H consonant mid word the a may well stand for a
perceived 'Ha'. Greek B (pronounced V) comined with e standing for a
perceived 'Ve' and the final Hebrew H is left untransliterated as there
is
no way in Greek of placing a final H in Greek.
In any case, I looked into this further and Theodoret is actually quite
late. Considerably later than the other competing transliterations.
I am not a Karaite or plan on ever becoming one but they have many
interesting things to say. They do observe Passover by the ripe barley and
every year they have an in-depth Aviv search.
Richard Conaway
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-
> bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of James Christian
> Sent: Thursday, January 14, 2010 8:05 AM
> To: b-hebrew
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Aviv and Exodus 9:31
>
> Hi all,
>
> some time last year (about the time of Passover) I was interested in
> researching how the Hebrews went about deciding the start of the year each
> year. Obviously, this was a crucial task to determining the date of the
> festival of Passover. In the course of my research I remember reading an
> unsubstantiated claim that before the implementation of the various
> mathematical systems of the Hebrew calendar the ancient Hebrews quite
simply
> looked each year for when the Barley was ripe. If it was not yet ripe then
> they added another month to the year. If it was ripe it was declared that
> the month of Aviv had started (at the new moon, of course). I remember
> finding this proposition interesting and a good agriculturally based claim
> but noted that the claim was not referenced in any way. Just today while
> reading through Exodus I noticed verse 31 of chapter 9.
>
> Any thoughts?
>
> James Christian
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