The King James reads
"And the LORD God planted a garden eastward in Eden; and there he put
the man whom he had formed."
The New International Version reads
"Now the Lord God had planted a garden in the east, in Eden; and there
he put the man he had formed."
It is argued that the presence of the waw consecutive indicates that
the planting of Eden was temporally successive to the creation of Adam
and not prior as the pluperfect in the NIV could allow.
(1) Can anyone explain from the text itself the rational behind some
translators prefering the pluperfect?
(2) Does the use of the pluperfect necessarily impy a paragraph break?
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