I have a question about the Yiqtol verb in Jeremiah 1:5.
1. Am I correct to expect a Qatal form of ȯ instead of a Yiqtol after the temporal adverbial prepositional phrase ·Ë¯Ì in verse 5?
2. Is the sense of the verse some kind of modal use of Yiqtol: "Before I could form you in the womb I knew you."? Or are these even the right kind of questions to be asking?
Just wanted to get your thoughts.
Joe Justiss
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