Hi all and especially Rolf,
I was thinking about this phrase from the first paragraph of Genesis: Âȯý
ýÏÈÌÝÏý¯ÝÈÂÌÝÂÏÁÍݯýÝÏÈÏ
I was wondering (Rolf) how you understand the sense of these verbs? It seems
clear to me that the author intended both verbs to be interpreted in the
exact same way. We have already all agreed that neither form necessarily
conveys an obligatory temporal sense but the context makes it clear that the
author is describing events in the distant past. In this way the translators
of the LXX seem to be in agreement:
ɻɸ? ?É»¿ÉÉÉ-ÉÉÀ ? ÉÉ?V É-? É"?V ?É ¤É¦ÉøÉÀ ɻɸ? É-? É-É»ÞÉ-ÉÕV ?É»¿ÉÉÉ-ÉÉÀ ÉÀýÉ»É-Éø
James Christian
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.