since your claim that Job is post-exilic we've seen the subject title
change five times and lots of different explanations of how you
classify the b-hebrew verb system. But I don't think any of us have
yet seen a concrete and clearly understandable question that
illustrates your point.
In fact, the more you've tried to explain where you are driving the
less I am actually seeing some kind of destination. Do you think you
could try just one more time (without all the condescending stuff) to
make a simple point or present a question that we can consider (having
actually understood what you are asking)?
Thanks
James Christian
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